. It contained the following statement: "Since Immanuel Kant we have known that no proof of a personal God is possible." (p. 88). I am not sure what that statement means, or how it could even be possible. Aside from the question "What do you mean, we?" How is it possible to know that "no proof of a personal God is possible?" Kant must have written something which I must now find. But as far I can tell the most we can say is that there is a hypothesis that that no proof of a personal God is possible. Maybe they are referring to a narrow version of "proof".Ah well, on to induction and some problems with the problem of induction, as in, wait there are an infinite number of universal statements whose truth we know inductively. Or maybe not.
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